I read another article wherein he was described as earlier experiencing “stress-induced seizures” and “non-epileptic seizures,” suggesting that those events were psychogenic, e.g., not due to any underlying neurophysiologic or vascular abnormality. I’ve seen patients with similar syndromes lasting weeks, perhaps a couple months, and then gradually showing some improvement. But a year, with consistent rather than episodic manifestations? I want to know what neuroimaging and electrographic studies have shown, and what other workup has been done. Any cerebrospinal fluid abnormalities? Not enough information here.
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