You mean like you telling me that I mean modern trade secret law when I’m talking about 400-year-old trade secrets? Or your repeated insistence on bringing whether or not individual creators profit when I’ve never based my argument on that? Or spurious comparisons to the benefit of one person as weighed against 7.5 billion people (as if they all benefit)? Or changing the meaning of words like “worthless” to suit your purposes. Why isn’t it straw manning for you to change the context from financial to creative, and to change the benefit analysis from creators to consumers?
If the US is the odd man out, then there isn’t any shortage of socialized medical systems. Given that this is the case, why haven’t we seen this sort of socialized pharmaceutical development yet? Has the current IP regime done anything to prevent socialized pharma?
Ad is there something special about IP protection in the US that makes their health care more expensive? Are you seriously suggesting that Canadian health care is cheaper because of Canadian IP law?
Or you could just provide examples and support your arguments instead of saying very vague things about history. How can you have a sane rational discussion with someone who makes vague statements that give no basis for challenge? Is simply saying “history proves this” the basis for a conversation?
You’ve explained it on the basis of “ownership,” and said that because you can lose it it’s not property… even though all sorts of property can be lost in the same way.
No. I obviously don’t think there was more innovation in the middle ages than in Ancient Greece. Innovation may build on innovation, but this doesn’t mean that you become more innovative just because you have more things to build on. There are obviously key technologies that foster innovation (writing, printing presses, radio-based communication, the internet, etc.), but I don’t agree with your base position at all, especially to the extent that I don’t think there’s any determinable growth curve based upon accumulated innovation.
But this is an argument entirely unsupported by even a shred of evidence, at least when it comes to IP. There’s the big problem that the golden ages you’re looking at likely have a fairly long time span, which makes it easy to over-estimate the pace of innovation. Then there’s the impossible problem of figuring out how their innovation would have proceeded if there were IP systems in place, with the duration of IP protection being another factor. I have my doubts that having IP protections in place would even affect many of the innovations that actually occurred. I mean, it took 25 years after Gutenberg for the printing press to reach England, for example, and Gutenberg itself was some 70 years after moveable type debuted in Asia (if Asian presses had to release technical details of their presses in order to patent them, then even those unwilling to license the technology would have been able to release their own after the 20-year patents expired). And there’s a reason why the majority of pre-IP authors tended to come from the upper class: they certainly couldn’t hope to support themselves on the basis of their creative output.
But it’s an impossible question, as you yourself essentially acknowledged when you said that no rational point can be made by talking about things that didn’t exist in a non-IP regime: by the same token no rational point can be made by comparing how things were before (non trade secret) IP existed. Yet you talk about what history has taught us as though there were a reasonable basis of comparison, when there isn’t. But I suppose it’s so much easier to simply make assertions about what history has taught us than to try and back it up.