They really need to reexamine that dodgy interpretation of the 13th amendment.
AMENDMENT XIII
Section 1.
Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.
Were they really equating all incarceration with slavery, or were they saying that slavery and involuntary servitude remain as possible punishments (like execution) that someone can be sentenced to by a court of law?
Is there anywhere else in the US constitution or law that supports that first interpretation?
