In short, no. At least not in common law legal systems like the US.
The judge’s role is to decide based on the information and arguments presented by the parties.
It is the duty of the attorneys to make sure that their filings are accurate.
In this case the prosecutor’s office appear to have decided to apply for all sorts of things they were not required or empowered to and claimed that the application was by consent.
Unless they can produce some document showing that the mother agreed to them doing all of that (and I wouldn’t be surprised if they did make her tick something to say she agreed or no benefits for you), the blame here lies squarely with the prosecutor’s office.
