I’d like some help to understand what is right about it myself.
I mean, if there is precedence to take it into account, what makes this situation different?
But the most important thing is that this data exists at all.
Is the MPAA looking to reduce the damages they want to extract from the plaintiff? I don’t see that they would.
Is the difference between damages that would take this data into account minimal? It wouldn’t be if they were asking for it to be removed from consideration at all.
If statutory damages are not dependent on proof of actual damages, why should they be higher than proven damages? You tell me.
But I guess that’s why WANL,OJE (We Are Not Lawyers, Or Judges Either)
