Well, if you mean not just the US system but every democracy in existence, that would be consistent enough. Preferring some forms over others would mean having a way to establish if votes make a difference, but maybe you think they never can.
I know you’ve said so, but if you’re going to demand controlled experiments for my opinions, it is only fair to expect them for yours. I think insisting that the parties are always equivalent is often just one more form of partisanship, and just like being a partisan for one of them means ignoring when they change; I’m not going to accept such a position on faith alone.
Do you have anything by way of evidence, and better than the sorts of general indications you’ve rejected from me? (I doubt my saying that one state was peculiar on two issues would have counted as such a proof.) Or is this all just a double standard?
