In the US of A, that is. Elsewhere it is quite often regulated.
Again, that is true for the US, and may or may not be true elsewhere. It is not true in the EU, for example. Still a problem for studies that it means different things in different places.
You mean only if they refer to a past where the produce allegedly contained more nutrients, or even in general?
A pretty strong claim either way, I would not agree with either.
Is any argument in the form “Y used to be better in the past than it is now, and if we do Y we get (some of) these benefits back” an entryway to fascism? Or is there another condition I’m not aware of?
