[quote=“From the article”]
“Why should we continue to employ wording that is biased, false, or laden with myth? Compromise, plantation, slave-owners, Union v. Confederacy, etc.: these phrases and many others obscure rather than illuminate; they serve the interests of traditionalists or white supremacists; they do not accurately reflect our current understanding of phenomena, thus they should be abandoned and replaced. I call upon historians in all fields to reexamine their language and terminology. Let us be careful and deliberate with our wording; though we study the past, let us not be chained to it.” - See more at: These Are Words Scholars Should No Longer Use to Describe Slavery and the Civil War | History News Network
If we’re using these words in a strictly historical context these phrases reveal as much about that history as do the accounts of it from which they are drawn.
Excepting that the author may understand that changing these words now to describe what they then described, that an additional lesson must be had in any historical instruction of the period, changing them serves to obscure the presence of those biases, falsehoods & myths which were prevalent then and continue to affect perceptions of the times.
Does any serious student of history take language as a reflection of the actual of it’s time or as the perceptions of one in those times? No person intent on shedding light on slavery or any aspect of history in North America is confused about what a plantation was during those times. A plantation was a privately owned estate where crops or orchards were cultivated by resident labour. In large potions of the US that labour was slave-labour. The word obscures nothing to the observant, and reveals that the owners, operators, beneficiaries of that plantation and it’s labour were complicit, accepting and often approving of the horrible practice of human enslavement. At the same time, words like labor camp existed at that time, but were not employed to describe these places. This is telling, and should be part of the lesson. That is leaving alone that labour camp has a specific meaning in the United States that does not currently include slave-labour camp.
Furthermore, Landis calls for this language to be abandoned and replaced. Therefore he is not of the mind of my Exception that should the replacement occur then the lesson of that language be addendum to any and all study of the era. That smacks of simple revisionism whether it applies to another revisionism or not.
In his article he uses the example of another scholar calling for a change to a series of acts collectively described then and now as the Compromise of 1850. He uses this to support his call for the abandonment and replacement of the historical terminology he objects to. Did Finkleman ever call for replacement of language, or was his work a revealing dissection that exposes the use of the word Compromise as itself a compromise in describing an appeasement? Finkleman wrote & edited a great deal on this period & my knowledge of his work is not exhaustive, but nowhere of what I have seen does he call for the replacement & abandonment of historical terminology in relation to those acts of Congress. He interprets them and that is his intent. Change them? Someone should ask him.
I could go on with every example, but I don’t need to. It is apparent to me & I think many that changing history through revisionism of language, language being a direct reflection of culture, is intellectually unappealing. It would do little or nothing to prevent traditionalists? (there are no traditionalists now breathing that desire a return to slavery because the tradition is abolished outside the span of all now alive) or white supremists from romanticizing the notions of slavery, but it would diminish historical understanding of that era were the terms used then, and used only contextually now, abolished, abandoned, written-out, replaced, sanitized or otherwise changed from the record.