How do you tell about that? I understand you think voting is immoral in the US as it is currently set up. Do you think it is exactly the same for the US before the civil war, or in Soviet Russia, or in ancient Athens, or in modern Sweden? If not, how would you distinguish between them aside from looking at how voting actually works out in those different times and places?
And since the political machine is trying to keep people voting, therefore it has no interest in disenfranchising people. And yet: it is very well attested that one of the parties has been doing so, so evidently this reasoning has some mistake.
You can say you won’t get into an argument of fact, but that’s what statements about how things work in practice are. Trying to use reasoning from loose first principles in the face of competing observations is how people end up with ideologies disconnected from reality.
