Me and my girlfriend have been pondering the semantics of this since Chelsea Manning became Chelsea Manning (or since Bradley Manning became…). It actually is a very interesting linguistic and semiotic issue, on many levels. If the person didn’t identify as female (for example) at the time, can that identity be retroactively applied? What is the person wasn’t even aware of potential of switching gender identities?
Not to use real world examples, since I don’t want to presume to know the state of any real person’s mind; If Bob Smith became Sue Smith, but wasn’t aware that this process was even a thing until some later point. Is it fair to, basically, erase Bob even if Bob is later Sue? Historically “Bob did X” is true, since at the point Bob was Bob, and Sue did not exist. This, obviously weirds language, since referents become confusing (since Bob and Sue are the same). Further, if Sue was previously referred to in writing (Like Bradley/Chelsea Manning), as Bob, then we run into further confusion since there is no longer a Bob (if we accept retroactive pronouns).
But then, if we were talking to the modern Sue, it would be silly to ask them about Bob’s accomplishments as if Bob was a different person.
But if your reading something about the historical Bradley Manning (or Bruce Jenner), do you just mentally or verbally replace “Bradley” with “Chelsea” (Or Bruce with Caitlyn), or read the article as written?
I probably would try to err on the side of respect, and be retroactive. But when reading historical documents, this breaks again.
Edit: Interesting, and perhaps related fact. I Googled “Bradley Manning” while writing this, just to get some basic fact/spelling checks, and to see if I could find some use examples. Google’s side bar doesn’t reference “Bradley Manning”, but auto replaces it with “Chelsea Manning”. I’m guessing from this that Google’s point of view is to be concurrently retrospective (to make up, I mean coin… new words).