No, because only one side made good on the transaction.
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Wouldn’t both sides have made good on the transaction? After all, the prostitute would have had to received money before the arrest happened.
You think the sex workers got to KEEP that money??
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I’m not sure. It kind of seems like once the money was in her possession, it was hers. It should be seized as evidence and after release it should be returned.
Oh you sweet summer child.
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If it was returned or used as payment for a penalty for the prostitution, would it still be considered rape in your view?
I mean, is the issue really theft of services?
Wouldn’t that be state sanctioned use of prostitutes for undercover police? Tax dollars and so on?
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As a survivor of rape, I really have a problem with this line of reasoning. What happened to me wasn’t dismissed and minimized by cops because we recognize a variety of things as rape and recognize the importance of meaningful consent. It was minimized by cops because cops don’t care about sexual assault.
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Nope. It’s not entrapment. A prostitute would still have committed the same “crime” with someone else therefore the “unlikely to commit” bar isn’t met.
Police are also allowed (with some limitations) to use deception, to break the law, to help you break the law, and even coerce you into breaking the law.
The Illustrated Guide to Law has a wonderful series on entrapment:
ETA: In case it wasn’t clear, the only point I was trying to make in this comment was that this doesn’t meet the legal standard for entrapment. I don’t condone anything about this practice.
Cop-just-doing-his-job: To make sure these are real drugs I’m going to have to ingest them first.
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I sometimes use a remarkably similar justification for my vices…
The core issue is lack of informed consent. Cops keeping the money afterward is adding insult to injury.
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Another aspect to this travesty is that it perpetuates, in a horrible way, the double standards of promiscuity. Men? Studs. Women? Dirty sluts!!!1!! In this instance, two people have sex, but the lying man gets to go home with slaps on the back from his buddies for his studliness but that dirty slut woman goes to jail.
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And if we’re going back to the informed consent route, then we’re back to the question as to whether someone who lies about themselves before having sex with another person has raped them.
By this standard, a 15 year old girl who pretends to be 18 and sleeps with a 35 year old man, has raped him. A man who pretends to be liberal when he’s really a Republican has raped a woman who would never sleep with a Republican. A woman who would never sleep with a married man would be raped by any married man who says he is single.
Hell, it makes anonymous sex, one night stands or any act which one literally can’t be informed, rape.
I mean, the number of people I’ve slept with that I would have never slept with knowing who they are now…
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I got to hand it to you, this is some next-level concern driving trollies here.
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What are you talking about? It is just a counterexample. I’m just trying to figure out where the line is drawn, so I went from an extreme case or a minor posing as an adult to a far more common one of a married man posing as a single.
Not just studs, heroes. Heroes who do what they have to do, even if it ends in them having uneccesary sex with prostitutes.
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As with so many genuine legal issues, the matter depends on the specific facts of the case, which is what judges and trials are for. They are used to find facts and apply the law to them.
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Blue sex lives matter!!!
/s
Uhg, I feel tainted even joking about this.
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Hint: consider which person in each scenario is likely to have more power over the other, then decide whether your counterexample is really applicable.
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