Well, this isnât quite right either. It would depend exactly what those inalienable rights are. In the UN declaration there certainly is, pretty early on: Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person. Unfortunately, definitions of these words may vary. So letâs look at the rest of the document and see what other rights are in there:
The will of the people shall be the basis of the authority of government; this will shall be expressed in periodic and genuine elections which shall be by universal and equal suffrage and shall be held by secret vote or by equivalent free voting procedures.
So the same document that guarantees me liberty also guarantees me the right to participate in elections. If you are going to base your morality off a quotation from that document, you kind of have to accept that their idea of âlibertyâ is not violated by voting in elections. In fact, my right to vote in elections is equal to your right to life and security of the person in the declaration. So according to international human rights, your point is completely invalid. And if you have proven that the declaration of human rights itself is inconsistent with your logic then: 1) donât quote it; and 2) how can you justify that the right to liberty should be the right that is held while the right to vote is removed to resolve this problem?
On to cake:
I did specify that the method of cutting would be analogous to the âI cut, you chooseâ method (there are multi-person analogies to this) which is generally considered a fair real-world way of dividing something since âequalâ is not possible.
I actually didnât include any mention of how ownership worked on purpose. Dividing a cake up should be a moral situations we can solve. If we need additional data to solve it then Iâm happy you supplied the answer for some possible data points.
If this is the only situation where we can avoid doing harm to one another then we are going to have to do harm to one another a lot whether we like it or not. You say that if the cutting method is chosen after the cake is bought then there is a chance for harm, but how does that same chance not exist before the cake is bought? I presume that you assume no harm can be done because a person who is unhappy with the situation can simply walk away with their money. But that extends to after buying the cake - if they did not make a satisfactory agreement ahead of time, isnât it their own fault that they did not do so?
How did they come to this state without agreeing to be in it? Perhaps the six men are prisoners and the cake has been dropped into their mutual cell. Perhaps they found the cake, and having found no way of establishing the proper owner, decided to consume it spoiled.
I also find it interesting that you think that if all the people own the cake equally then cutting into equal pieces is necessarily fair. What if that sixth person, an equal owner of the cake, objects to the division because they wanted the cake for the aesthetics of the cake as a whole and donât even care to eat it? By dividing the cake in any manner their purpose is thwarted. The other five had no idea that when they went in to buy the cake together that the sixth person wanted to display it rather than eat it - the thought never occurred to them. The sixth person, being as obsessed with the aesthetics of cakes as they are, didnât realize the others meant to eat it.
Now they have to find a way out of this difficult situation. None of the five wishes to stomp on the rights of the sixth, but the sixth is equally unwilling to impose his will on the five. But dividing the cake in any way, the purpose of the sixth is thwarted, but not dividing it the purpose of the five is. If this is the found cake or the prisoner cake then none can be faulted for not agreeing on a cake dividing method ahead of time. How can we resolve this intractable moral dilemma?