My perspective is: you’re still guilty of the crime, independent of whether or not the person decides after the fact that they aren’t going to object.
However, the one who performs the assault is never going to get convicted without that person who was assaulted agreeing to testify that it was non-consensual, so no charges will ever be filed.
It’s like being in a big block of cars going 15 km/h over the limit. They’re not pulling you over, true, but you’re still breaking the law.
Then I’ve already broken the law at least once today with my wife.
Also I’d like to mention that I asked about someone who didn’t mind, not someone who wasn’t going to object.
There’s a difference between explicit and implicit consent.
If:
… then I would say that the behaviour is implicitly consensual.
If any of the above is not true, then yes, that’s breaking the law. If your wife hasn’t objected in the past, then you’re probably okay (but, unless she’s explicitly said that she doesn’t mind you doing it, I’d still ask).
The latter description includes the former. If you’re raising an objection, it’s because you mind, but some people who do mind may not be comfortable raising an objection.
ETA: More to the point, from the perspective of the person committing the assault (assuming that it doesn’t fall under the guidelines of implicit consent listed above), there’s no perceivable difference between the two scenarios for this instance, although the “I didn’t mind” might be construed as consent for the next instance.
The point is someone other than you said
To which I said, essentially, that being attractive doesn’t change the severity of sexual assault, but it often moves the line that separates unwanted kisses from unexpected kisses from someone with which you have no “implicit consent” that you decide after the fact you don’t mind.
If that was the point that you were trying to make with this post:
… then you made it very poorly.
The latter-quoted post, even when I go back and read it in context, and even with your later clarification, seems more like it’s trying to say, “If a person gives consent after a non-consensual sexual act, then that retroactively makes it a consensual act.”
And my post was meant to disagree with that assertion.
If you’re not making that assertion, then we are already in agreement.
It doesn’t make it consensual retroactively. But your idea of implied consent regarding sexual assault is iffy at best, and possibly nonexistent.
How so?
I looked it up and read about it. It seems to be on the wane or obsolete, depending on the details of the infraction and the jurisdiction.
These large mammals all look alike.
I love how conservatives think having sex with their wife means their opinions on consent are relevant.
What, you missed his mic drop?
Am I the conservative?
I love that!
Your weird conflation of marital contact with groping comes off as out of their playbook.
Actually what I was conflating was the kiss she describes in the video, “If I had a boyfriend that I was meeting for lunch, that’s the kind of kiss it would have been. It was a warm embrace and then a kiss. Just a quick, kind of a peck,” with a quick kiss goodbye I gave my wife before work one morning.
In the context of all his other misdeeds and assaults it’s fair to throw this one in as well, but I can’t help but notice that in this particular instance I know people that do this quick peck on the lips greeting all the time and for whatever reason it seems to be fine. I said to me wife the other day when we watched that video, “Have you noticed so-and-so kisses everyone he meets on the lips?” “Does he?” “I remember he kissed you.” “Did he?”
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